Originally Posted by
dazzler
Hi toolin
There seems to be two different things going on in the text. One is talking about negligence, which to my mind is where there are acts or omissions PRIOR to the incident taking place, such as excavations in the backyard, leaving tripping hazards etc and then the second part referring to no duty of care in respect of conduct engaged in self defence, very much acts conducted at the TIME of the incident.
Are they saying that if I trespass on someones property(a criminal act), AND there is "no duty of care" required, that they can swing the mythical steel pipe without care, and if they do kill me, that they cannot be sued?
BUT it is taken that they can be charged criminally?
cheers